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Chapter 4 – The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches and Fibers An. Page(s)/difficulty

K = knowledge-level, A = application level

Multiple Choice Questions for Section 4.0 Introduction 01.

In which of the following are ample amounts of carbohydrates almost always found? a. Plant foods b. Health foods c. Animal products d. Protein-rich foods

02.

All of the following are sources of dietary carbohydrates except a. fish. b. milk. c. fruits. d. legumes.

Questions for Section 4.1 The Chemist’s View of Carbohydrates 03.

04.

What type of nutrient is starch? a. Fiber b. Gluten c. Simple carbohydrate d. Complex carbohydrate Which of the following is not a simple carbohydrate? a. Starch b. White sugar c. Disaccharide d. Monosaccharide

05.

How many carbon atoms are found in most common dietary monosaccharides? a. 5 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

06.

The types of atoms found in a glucose molecule include all of the following except a. carbon. b. oxygen. c. nitrogen. d. hydrogen.

07.

Which of the following is known as blood sugar or dextrose? a. Glucose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Fructose

08.

What component accounts for the usually sweet taste of fruits? a. Fats b. Fiber c. Simple sugars d. Complex carbohydrates

09.

Which of the following is known as fruit sugar or levulose? a. Maltose b. Glucose c. Fructose d. Galactose

10.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of glucose? a. It is soluble in water b. It is a monosaccharide c. It is part of the sucrose molecule d. It is sweeter tasting than sucrose

11.

What is the sweetest-tasting simple carbohydrate in the diet? a. Glucose b. Lactose c. Fructose d. Sucrose

12.

Typical dietary sources of carbohydrate include all of the following except a. starch. b. maltose. c. phytates. d. glycogen.

13.

Milk that has been treated with a commercially available lactase preparation undergoes which of the following changes? a. Increase in sweetness b. Decrease in sweetness c. Increase in carbohydrate content d. Decrease in carbohydrate content

14.

What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together? a. Hydrolysis b. Absorption c. Disaccharide d. Condensation

15.

Which of the following is a byproduct of the condensation of two molecules of glucose? a. Water b. Oxygen c. Hydrogen d. Carbon dioxide

16.

The chemical reaction by which starch is split into monosaccharides is termed a. hydrolysis. b. condensation. c. gluconeogenesis. d. homeostatic balancing.

17.

The chief carbohydrate in beet sugar is a. starch. b. sucrose. c. glycogen. d. invert sugar.

18.

What is the composition of sucrose? a. Two fructose units b. One glucose and one fructose unit c. One glucose and one galactose unit d. One galactose and one fructose unit What is the composition of maltose? a. Two glucose units b. One glucose and one fructose unit c. One glucose and one galactose unit d. One galactose and one fructose unit

19.

20.

Which of the following is a component of all three dietary disaccharides?

a. b. c. d.

Sucrose Glucose Fructose Galactose

21.

What is the composition of lactose? a. Two glucose units b. Two fructose units c. One glucose and one fructose unit d. One glucose and one galactose unit

22.

What is the principle carbohydrate of milk? a. Lactose b. Sucrose c. Maltose d. Glycogen

23.

What is another name for lactose? a. Milk sugar b. Fruit sugar c. Table sugar d. Artificial sugar

24.

Which of the following sugars is not found in plants? a. Glucose b. Lactose c. Sucrose d. Fructose

25.

What is the name of the animal polysaccharide composed of glucose units? a. Fiber b. Enzyme c. Dextrin d. Glycogen

26.

Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues? a. Muscle and liver b. Pancreas and kidneys c. Stomach and intestine d. Brain and red blood cells

27.

Which of the following is a feature of glycogen? a. It is found in plants b. It is important as a dietary nutrient c. It is virtually absent from animal meats d. It plays an insignificant role in the body

28.

What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body? a. Fiber b. Starch c. Glucose d. Glycogen

29.

Which of the following is not a rich source of dietary starch? a. Grains b. Fruits c. Tubers d. Legumes What is the staple grain of Canada, the United States, and Europe? a. Oats b. Rice c. Corn

30.

d.

Wheat

31.

What is the predominant grain product in much of South and Central America? a. Rice b. Corn c. Millet d. Wheat

32.

What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin? a. Fibers b. Starches c. Sugar alcohols d. Artificial sweeteners

33.

Which of the following is described as a nonstarch polysaccharide? a. Lactose b. Phytates c. Glycogen d. Cellulose

34.

Which of the following is an example of the difference between the chemical bonds in starch and those in cellulose? a. Starch bonds are single b. Starch bonds are fatty acids c. Cellulose bonds release energy d. Cellulose bonds are not hydrolyzed by human enzymes

35.

Which of the following is a feature of the pectins? a. They are used to thicken jelly b. They are classified as insoluble fibers c. They are resistant to intestinal bacterial fermentation d. They are found in the small seeds of fruits such as strawberries

36.

Which of the following statements is not characteristic of fibers? a. Most fibers consist of linked monosaccharides b. An example of a nonstarch polysaccharide fiber is pectin c. An example of a nonpolysaccharide fiber is hemicellulose d. Most soluble fibers are easily digested by the bacteria in the colon

37.

A “functional fiber” is one that a. occurs naturally in the intact plant. b. performs a specific function in the plant. c. is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect. d. is a polysaccharide that is stored primarily in muscle and liver of animals.

38.

Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestine? a. Bacteria b. Pancreas c. Colonic cells d. Small intestinal villus cell

39.

Which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fibers? a. They cause diverticulosis b. They raise blood cholesterol levels c. They are usually found in high-fat foods d. They are classified according to solubility in water With few exceptions, all of the following characteristics are shared by water-soluble and water-insoluble fibers except a. they are found only in plant-derived foods. b. they consist primarily of nonstarch polysaccharides. c. neither has an appreciable effect on glucose absorption.

40.

d.

their consumption enhances stool formation and elimination.

41.

What type of fiber is readily digested by colonic bacteria? a. Lignans b. Phytates c. Cellulose d. Fermentable

42.

Which of the following is a common source of resistant starch? a. Apple b. Orange c. Baked potato d. Unripe bananas

43.

Which of the following is a feature of resistant starch? a. It is common in overripe bananas b. Excessive intake promotes constipation c. It resists hydrolysis by digestive enzymes d. It cannot be fermented by large intestinal bacteria

44.

Characteristics of dietary phytic acid include all of the following except a. it is classified as a fiber. b. it is found in the husks of grains. c. it is synonymous with the term phytate. d. it inhibits absorption of several minerals.

45.

Which of the following describes the compound phytic acid? a. Product of starch digestion b. Nonnutrient component of plant seeds c. Found in gastric juice and helps to lower pH of chyme d. Found in high concentrations in the blood of people with diabetes

46.

Which of the following fibers is water insoluble? a. Gums b. Pectins c. Cellulose d. Mucilages

47.

Water-soluble fibers include all of the following except a. gums. b. pectins. c. lignins. d. mucilages.

48.

Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber? a. Apples b. Prunes c. Potatoes d. White rice

Questions for Section 4.2 Digestion and Absorption of Carbohydrates 49.

Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place in the small intestine and also in the a. mouth. b. colon. c. stomach. d. pancreas.

50.

All of the following are properties of fiber except a. it delays gastric emptying. b. it provides a feeling of satiety. c. it elevates blood glucose levels.

d.

it contributes about 1.5-2.5 kcalories per gram.

51.

What is the name of the short chains of glucose units that result from starch breakdown? a. Sucrose b. Lignins c. Pectins d Dextrins

52.

Which of the following enzymes does not act on simple sugars? a. Lactase b. Sucrase c. Amylase d. Maltase

53.

What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine

54.

After you and your friend Dolores share pretzels and animal crackers, she announces that she wants to start digesting her food by watching television. You inform Dolores that a. she really should spend 10-15 minutes on the treadmill to help her body break down the carbohydrates faster. b. her body will not begin to break down the carbohydrates for a couple more hours until they reach the small intestine. c. the hydrochloric acid in her stomach breaks down all the carbohydrates and she need not rest while this occurs. d. carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth through the action of amylase, so she has already begun digesting the snacks. The enzymes that digest dietary sugars are produced by the a. mouth. b. stomach. c. pancreas. d. small intestine.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

What is the primary organ that converts fructose to glucose following absorption? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Skeletal muscle d. Small intestines What is the first organ to receive carbohydrates absorbed from the intestine? a. Heart b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Skeletal muscle All of the following are symptoms of lactose intolerance except a. bloating. b. diarrhea. c. cramping. d. constipation. What percentage of the world’s adult population shows good tolerance to lactose ingestion? a. 30 b. 55 c. 80 d. 95 Which of the following would least likely be connected with the development of lactose intolerance? a. Medicines b. Milk allergy c. Prolonged diarrhea d. Inherited lactase deficiency

61.

62.

A person diagnosed with milk allergy would be sensitive to the milk’s a. fat. b. lactose. c. protein. d. minerals. For most of the world’s population, what is the effect of aging on the activity of lactase? a. Declines by 30-40% b. Declines by 90-95% c. Increases by 30-40% d. Increases by 90-95%

63.

Which of the following is a characteristic of yogurt? a. Bacteria in yogurt produce lactase b. Yogurt is poorly tolerated in lactose-intolerant people c. There are only trace amounts of lactose present in yogurt d. The lactose content of yogurt is about one-half that of milk

64.

What is the chief reason that many people with lactose intolerance can consume foods containing some lactose without suffering any symptoms? a. A change occurs in the GI bacteria b. Intestinal lactase enzyme can re-appear in adequate amounts c. The lactose-containing foods must be eaten only as part of a full meal d. The lactose-containing foods must first be heated to 100° C to degrade lactose

65.

Which of the following is a feature of kefir? a. Its low pH inactivates lactose b. It contains live bacterial organisms c. It contains half as much lactose as milk d. It is a recommended substitute for people with milk allergy

66.

Among the following foods, which contains the lowest amount of lactose per serving? a. Yogurt b. Ice cream c. Doughnut d. American cheese

67.

Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses? a. The lactose molecules bond to casein b. More lactose is removed during manufacturing c. The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose d. The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide

68.

Which of the following is a feature of lactose? a. Its digestion begins in the mouth b. It is found in various amounts in most animal foods c. It is used as filler in one out of five prescription drugs d. It causes frequent allergies in certain population groups

69.

Which of the following provides the least amount of lactose per serving? a. Low-fat milk b. Cottage cheese c. Chocolate milk d. Cheddar cheese

70.

Among the following population groups, which shows the highest prevalence of lactose intolerance? a. Hispanics b. Caucasians c. Scandinavians d. African Americans

71.

Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet? a. Whey b. Casein c. Dextrins d. Milk solids

Questions for Section 4.3 Glucose in the Body 72. If you were to exercise continuously, about how long would glycogen stores last? a. A few minutes b. A few hours c. About 12 hours d. About 1 day 73. What fraction of the body’s total glycogen content is found in the liver? a. 1/10 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 74. In what organ is most of the body’s glycogen found? a. Liver b. Muscles c. Kidneys d. Intestines 75.

At rest, the typical body stores of glycogen can provide energy for a maximum of about a. 4 hours. b. 1 day. c. 3 days. d. 1 week.

76.

What is the minimum daily amount of dietary carbohydrate necessary to spare body protein from excessive breakdown? a. 10-25 g b. 50-100 g c. 150-175 g d. 200-400 g

77.

What is the primary function of insulin? a. Raises blood glucose levels b. Lowers blood glucose levels c. Stimulates glycogen breakdown d. Stimulates intestinal carbohydrate absorption

78.

The process by which an amino acid is used to make glucose is termed a. glycation. b. ketogenesis. c. protein sparing. d. gluconeogenesis.

79.

Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of a. amino acids from glucose. b. lactose from a source of sucrose. c. fat from excess carbohydrate intake. d. glucose from a noncarbohydrate substance.

80.

Which of the following values falls within the normal range (mg/dL) of blood glucose? a. 40 b. 55 c. 75 d. 140

81.

You have just finished a light breakfast of toast and jelly. Which of the following series of events proceeds upon digestion/absorption of the meal until it is near time for lunch? a. Blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases glucagon, the pancreas releases insulin, blood glucose rises, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of insulin, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood b. Blood glucose rises, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of insulin, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, the pancreas releases glucagon, the pancreas releases insulin, blood glucose rises c. Blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases insulin, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of insulin, blood glucose levels decline, the pancreas releases glucagon, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, blood glucose rises d. Blood glucose levels decline, the pancreas releases insulin, blood glucose levels rise, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, the pancreas releases glucagon, blood glucose rises

82.

What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration? a. Brain b. Liver c. Muscle d. Pancreas

83.

What is a normal range (mg/dL) for blood glucose? a. 60-80 b. 70-110 c. 120-140 d. 140-180

84.

When blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Epinephrine d. Cholecystokinin

85.

Which of the following is a typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose? a. Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin b. Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon c. Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen d. Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine

86.

Which of the following blood glucose concentrations (mg/dL) is most consistent with hypoglycemia? a. 40 b. 80 c. 115 d. 150 When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration? a. Insulin b. Secretin c. Glucogen d. Epinephrine

87.

88.

89.

In the time between meals, what organ releases glucose to help maintain normal blood glucose levels? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Intestines d. Skeletal muscle A person with a fasting blood glucose concentration of 129 mg/dL would be classified as a. normal. b. diabetic. c. prediabetic.

d.

hypoglycemic.

90.

What glycemic index category would include yogurt and cheese? a. Low b. Moderate c. High d. Very high

91.

A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is a. very low. b. low. c. moderate. d. high.

92.

Which of the following is a feature of the condition hypoglycemia? a. It is treated with insulin injections b. It is aggravated by high-fiber foods c. It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition d. It occurs rarely in otherwise healthy people

93.

Which of the following is a feature of diabetes? a. Type 1 diabetes is more common than type 2 b. Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin overload diabetes c. Diabetes is caused by an excessive intake of dietary carbohydrates d. Dietary management should focus on total carbohydrate intake rather than the carbohydrate consumed

type of

94.

What term describes how quickly glucose is absorbed from a food after ingestion, how high blood glucose rises as a result, and how quickly blood glucose returns to normal? a. Diabetes index b. Glycemic index c. Diabetes potential d. Glycemic response

95.

A person with a fasting blood glucose level of 101 mg/dL would be classified as a. normal. b. prediabetic. c. a type 1 diabetic. d. a type 2 diabetic.

96.

Which of the following are characteristic of the conditions diabetes and hypoglycemia? a. Neither has a genetic susceptibility b. Neither is associated with increases in body weight c. Both respond to insulin administration and chromium supplements d. Both benefit from the inclusion of fiber-rich foods and consumption of smaller, more frequent meals

97.

Your nephew Jimmy, who is 10 years old, has been giving himself a shot in the thigh every day for the past year. He confides in you that he craves candy but was told by his parents that he can only eat sugar-free snacks. From which of the following conditions does Jimmy most likely suffer? a. Hyperactivity b. Type 1 diabetes c. Type 2 diabetes d. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

98.

Which of the following is a feature of diabetes? a. Many people with type 2 diabetes are obese b. Most people who have diabetes require insulin therapy c. Diabetes results chiefly from excess dietary intake of simple carbohydrates d. People with type 1 diabetes fail to respond to the insulin made by the pancreas

99.

100.

Which of the following statements describes the glycemic index of foods? a. A way of ranking foods according to their potential to increase blood glucose b. The newest, most practical means for planning diets for people with diabetes c. A well-utilized, highly valued mechanism to control the intake of simple sugars d. A measure of the percentage of digestible carbohydrates in relation to total energy content of the food In a person with type 2 diabetes, which of the following foods would ordinarily promote the least favorable glycemic effect? a. Chocolate b. Ice cream c. Baked potato d. Baked beans

Questions for Section 4.4 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Sugars 101.

What is the name of the sweetener consisting of a mixture of glucose and fructose formed by chemical hydrolysis of sucrose? a. Molasses b. Invert sugar c. Turbinado sugar d. High-fructose syrup

102.

What is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages? a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Invert sugar d. High-fructose corn syrup

103.

Honey contains a. both fructose and lactose. b. both glucose and galactose. c. more kcalories per teaspoon than sucrose. d. abundant amounts of calcium and iron. Which of the following sweeteners contains a significant amount of calcium? a. Molasses b. Brown sugar c. Maple sugar d. Invert sugar

104.

105.

106.

107.

All of the following are features of honey except a. it is the preferred sweetener in infant foods. b. it is known to relieve coughing at night in children. c. a teaspoon provides more energy than a teaspoon of table sugar. d. it is known to decrease the severity of mouth ulcers induced by chemotherapy in patients.

cancer

Which of the following is best known to result from regular ingestion of sugar? a. Ulcers b. Diabetes c. Dental caries d. Cardiovascular disease Which of the following recommendations will help to reduce the incidence of dental caries when the diet contains sugary foods? a. Eat sugary foods separate from meals b. Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits c. Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly d. Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day

108.

Which of the following describes a relationship between carbohydrate intake and dental health? a. Starches cannot promote the formation of dental caries b. After exposure to a single snack, mouth bacteria produce acid for 50-60 minutes c. Eating a sugary dessert at the beginning of a meal, rather than the end, is less likely to promote dental caries d. Sugar consumed in a soft drink promotes more bacterial fermentation than the same amount of sugar in a doughnut

109.

Approximately how many pounds of added sugars are consumed by the average U.S. resident each year? a. 25 b. 65 c. 105 d. 190

110.

You have just arrived at a lunch buffet and are faced with many choices. Although each of the following portions provides about 200 kcalories, which is most nutrient dense? a. 16-ounce soda b. 6 slices of avocado c. 8-ounce sports drink d. 3 slices of whole-wheat bread

111.

Approximately how many kcalories are provided by two teaspoons of sugar? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

112.

Based on height, weight, age, and physical activity level, you have calculated that you should be consuming about 2200 kcalories per day. Which of the following portions is closest to the discretionary kcalories allowed in the USDA Food Guide for added sugars in your diet? a. 15 tsp honey b. 20 tsp hard candy c. 10 tsp corn starch d. 10 tsp brown sugar

113.

According to the current dietary recommendations, what is the maximum percentage of total energy intake that added sugar should contribute in the diet? a. 2 b. 10 c. 15 d. 25

Questions for Section 4.5 Alternative Sweeteners 114.

All of the following are features of artificial sweeteners except a. there is a lack of scientific consensus on their benefits for weight reduction. b. there is an Acceptable Daily Intake which provides a wide margin of safety. c. they provide about one-half the energy of carbohydrates plus small amounts of vitamins and minerals. d. if used, the American Dietetic Association advises moderate intake and only in a wellbalanced, nutritious diet.

115.

What is stevia? a. An herb-derived sweetener b. An FDA-approved sugar alcohol c. A poorly digested polysaccharide d. An inhibitor of lactase enzyme activity

116.

Which of the following artificial sweeteners has a composition similar to aspartame? a. Neotame b. Sucralose c. Saccharin d. Acesulfame-K

117.

All of the following components are part of the chemical structure of aspartame except a. aspartic acid. b. methyl group. c. phenylalanine. d. methanol group.

118.

Among the following approved sweeteners, which has the highest relative sweetness? a. Tagatose b. Sucralose c. Aspartame d. Acesulfame-K

119.

Among the alternative sweeteners available in the United States, which has a structure that integrates chlorine atoms? a. Tagatose b. Sucralose c. Aspartame d. Acesulfame-K

120.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar replacers (sugar alcohols)? a. They have a low glycemic index b. They promote constipation in children c. They demonstrate fewer GI side effects than the alternative sweeteners d. They are less effective than alternative sweeteners in inhibiting dental caries

121.

Which of the following is not a classification for the food additives mannitol, sorbitol, and xylitol? a. Carbohydrates b. Sugar alcohols c. Sugar replacers d. Artificial sweeteners

122. Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar alcohols? a. They are not sweet b. They provide kcalories c. They are not metabolized d. They promote dental caries 123. When consumed in excess, which of the following is most likely to lead to diarrhea? a. Fiber b. Sucrose c. Sorbitol d. Wheat starch 124.

Which of the following is a general feature of the sugar alcohols (sugar replacers)? a. They provide less than 1 kcalorie per gram b. They elicit a high glycemic index c. They are rapidly absorbed from the intestines d. They cannot be metabolized by cariogenic bacteria

125.

What is the approximate energy content (kcal/g) of most sugar alcohols? a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 7

Questions for Section 4.6 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Starch and Fibers

126.

Which of the following is known to correlate most strongly with reduced risk of deaths from heart disease? a. High fiber intake b. High sugar intake c. High levulose intake d. High corn syrup intake

127.

All of the following foods are rich sources of soluble fiber except a. barley. b. legumes. c. oat bran. d. wheat bran.

128.

Which of the following is not a feature of high-fiber foods? a. Effective in weight control b. Provide feeling of fullness c. Usually lower in fat and simple sugars d. Provide more energy per gram than processed foods

129.

In general, modifying a diet that by substituting complex carbohydrates for pure sugars results in a diet that is higher in a. fat. b. fiber. c. energy. d. refined foods. All of the following are characteristic of a high-fiber diet except a. there is a risk of not meeting energy needs. b. it may reduce risk of lung cancer but increase risk of breast cancer. c. it initially may cause bouts of gastrointestinal discomfort and diarrhea. d. it may precipitate mineral deficiency if the body’s mineral intake status is marginal.

130.

131.

According to most dietary guidelines, what percentage of the day’s total energy intake should be furnished by carbohydrates? a. 10-15 b. 30-35 c. 45-65 d. 90-95

132.

What is the RDA for carbohydrate? a. 10 g b. 45 g c. 130 g d. 250 g

133.

Allen is 20 years old and asks for help in selecting a fiber-rich diet. After he ranks the kinds of foods he likes to eat, you provide him with a list of food items consisting of a. 1 cup of cooked barley and 1 cup of garbanzo beans, 1 kiwi, and 1 slice whole- wheat bread. b. 3 slices of whole-wheat bread, 2 cups of black beans, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal, and 1 cup apple juice. c. 16 ounces of low-fat cheese, 3 medium apples, 2 cups blackberries, ½ cup spinach, and ½ cup of broccoli. d. 1 cup baked beans, 1 medium apple, 1 banana, 1½ cups oatmeal, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal, and ½ cup chopped raw carrots. According to the American Dietetic Association, what is the Daily Value for fiber when expressed in g per 1000 kcal? a. 5 b. 8 c. 11.5 d. 16.5

134.

135.

About how many grams of carbohydrate are contained in one ounce of foods in the grain group? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

136.

What is the DRI for fiber for a person consuming 2500 kcalories? a. 5g b. 15 g c. 25 g d. 35 g

137.

Which of the following provides the most fiber? a. 1 orange b. ½ cup oatmeal c. 1 cup split peas d. 1 slice whole-wheat bread

138.

All of the following provide about 15 g of carbohydrate per serving except a. ½ cup corn. b. ½ cup peas. c. ½ cup potatoes. d. ½ cup green beans.

139.

Which of the following is a feature of dairy products and carbohydrate? a. A cup of milk yields about 6 g of carbohydrate b. Most cheeses provide little, if any, carbohydrate c. Cottage cheese provides about 12 g of carbohydrate d. A serving of yogurt yields about 3 g of carbohydrate

Section 4.7 Carbs, kCalories, and Controversies 140.

Which of the following is a typical response in people following a low-carbohydrate diet? a. They often complain of diet-induced diarrhea b. They experience frequent bouts of hyperglycemia c. Total weight loss after one year is the same as in people on conventional diets d. They lose about the same amount of weight as people on conventional diets for the first 6 months

141.

Which of the following is not associated with the regular consumption of sugary beverages? a. It is easy to overconsume kcal b. It correlates with being overweight c. The fructose stimulates excessive release of insulin, which suppresses appetite d. Substitution of one can of regular soda with water every day could result in a one pound per month

Matching 01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

Disaccharide containing fructose Chemical reaction that links two molecules together Chemical reaction that splits a larger molecule into smaller molecules A complex carbohydrate in muscle A complex carbohydrate in legumes Structurally similar to starch but resistant to digestion A water-soluble fiber A water-insoluble fiber Site where digestion of disaccharides takes place Site where digestion of starch begins Site where fibers may be metabolized to short-chain fatty acids When digested, yields galactose Substance that signals the release of glucose into blood Substance that signals removal of glucose from the blood

weight loss of

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Normal blood glucose level, in mg per 100 mL blood Stress hormone that modulates blood glucose Processed syrup made from cornstarch Number of kcalories provided by a 16-ounce regular soda A sugar alcohol RDA for carbohydrates A. B. C. D. E. F. G.

100 130 200 Pectin Insulin Mouth Starch

H. I. J. K. L. M. N.

Sucrose Lactose Lignin Sorbitol Glycogen Glucagon Cellulose

O. P. Q. R.

Hydrolysis HFCS Epinephrine Condensatio

n

S. Small intestine T. Large intestine